Look at [SELECT INTO][1].  This will create a new table for you, which can be temporary if you want by prefixing the table name with a pound sign (#).

For example, you can do:

    SELECT * 
    INTO #YourTempTable
    FROM YourReportQuery




  [1]: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188029.aspx

You can use `select ... into ...` to create and populate a temp table and then query the temp table to return the result.

    select *
    into #TempTable
    from YourTable
    
    select *
    from #TempTable



In MySQL: 

    create table temp as select * from original_table

Try:

    exec(&#39;drop table #tab&#39;) -- you can add condition &#39;if table exists&#39;
    exec(&#39;select * into #tab from tab&#39;)

 Suppose your existing reporting query  is 
 

    Select EmployeeId,EmployeeName 
    from Employee 
    Where EmployeeId&gt;101 order by EmployeeName

 and you have to save this data into temparory table then you query goes to 
 

    Select EmployeeId,EmployeeName 
    into #MyTempTable 
    from Employee 
    Where EmployeeId&gt;101 order by EmployeeName	

I know that I can use `map` with a function of one variable in the following manner:

    var squarefunc = function(x) {
        return x*x;
    };
    values = [1,2,3,4]
    values.map(squarefunc) // returns [1,4,9,16]

How do I use `map` with the following function:

    var squarefuncwithadjustment = function(x, adjustment) {
        return (x*x + adjustment);
    }

where, I want to input value for argument `adjustment` manually when I call map, say `adjustment=2`, and have the value of `x` taken from the array `values`.


Using javascript map with a function that has two arguments

How do you prevent multiple clients from using the same session ID? I&#39;m asking this because I want to add an extra layer of security to prevent session hijacking on my website. If a hacker somehow figures out another user&#39;s session ID and makes requests with that SID, how can I detect that there are different clients sharing a single SID on the server and then reject the hijack attempt?

**EDIT**

I have accepted Gumbo&#39;s answer after careful consideration because I&#39;ve come to the realization that what I&#39;m asking for is impossible due to the restrictions of a *stateless HTTP protocol*. I forgot about what is perhaps the most fundamental principle of HTTP, and now that I think about this question seems a bit trivial.

Let me elaborate what I mean:

After User A logs in on example.com, he is given some random session ID, for simplicity&#39;s sake, let it be &#39;abc123&#39;. This session ID is stored as a cookie on the client side and is validated with a server-side session to ensure the user who logged in remains logged in as he moves from one webpage to another. This cookie of course would not need to exist if HTTP were not stateless. For that reason, if User B steals User A&#39;s SID, and creates a cookie on his computer with the value &#39;abc123&#39;, he would have successfully hijacked User A&#39;s session, but there is simply no way for the server to legitimately recognize that User B&#39;s request is any different from User A&#39;s requests, and therefore the server has no reason to reject any request. Even if we were to list the sessions that were already active on the server and try to see if someone is accessing a session that is already active, how can we determine that it is another user who is accessing the session illegitimately and not the same user who is already logged in with a session ID, but simply trying to make another request with it (ie navigate to a different webpage). We can&#39;t. Checking the user agent? Can be spoofed - but good as a Defense in Depth measure nevertheless. IP Address? Can change for legitimate reasons - but instead of not checking for the IP address at all, I suggest checking something like the first two octets of the IP, as even a user on a data plan network who constantly has a changing IP for perfectly legitimate reasons would only usually have the last two octets of their IP change.

In consclusion, it is the stateless HTTP that condemns us to never being able to fully protect our websites from session hijacking, but good practices (like the ones Gumbo has provided) will be good enough to prevent a good majority of session attacks. Trying to protect sessions from hijacking by denying multiple requests of the same SID is therefore simply ludicrous, and would defeat the whole purpose of sessions.

Preventing session hijacking

I have a SQL query (SQL Server) and it generate reports, I want to store that exact report in temp table so I can play with it later. Now question is do I need to create temp table first and then store SQL query result into it, or is there any way to dynamically create table and store query result? 

How SQL query result insert in temp table?

<p>I have a SQL query (SQL Server) and it generate reports, I want to store that exact report in temp table so I can play with it later. Now question is do I need to create temp table first and then store SQL query result into it, or is there any way to dynamically create table and store query result?</p>


I am storing a `DATETIME` field in a table. Each value looks something like this:
&gt; 2012-09-09 06:57:12

I am using this syntax:
        
    date(&quot;Y-m-d H:i:s&quot;);


Now my question is, while fetching the data, how can get both date and time ***separately***, using a single MySQL query?

Date like &quot;**2012-09-09**&quot; and time like &quot;**06:57:12**&quot;. 
 

How to separate DATE and TIME from DATETIME in MySQL?

I have a table like this:

    TITLE          |   DESCRIPTION
    ------------------------------------------------
    test1          |   value blah blah value
    test2          |   value test
    test3          |   test test test
    test4          |   valuevaluevaluevaluevalue

I am trying to figure out how to return the number of times a string occurs in each of the DESCRIPTION&#39;s.

So, if I want to count the number of times &#39;value&#39; appears, the sql statement will return this:

    TITLE          |   DESCRIPTION                  |   COUNT
    ------------------------------------------------------------
    test1          |   value blah blah value        |   2
    test2          |   value test                   |   1
    test3          |   test test test               |   0
    test4          |   valuevaluevaluevaluevalue    |   5

Is there any way to do this? I do not want to use php at all, just mysql.


Count the number of occurrences of a string in a VARCHAR field?

How would I be able to extract the time part of a DateTime field in SQL? For my  project I have to return data that has a timestamp of 5pm of a DateTime field no matter what the date is

Time part of a DateTime Field in SQL

How would I round down to the nearest integer in MySQL?

Example: `12345.7344 rounds to  12345`

mysql&#39;s `round()` function rounds up.

I don&#39;t know how long the values nor the decimal places will be, could be 10 digits with 4 decimal places, could be 2 digits with 7 decimal places. 

How to round down to nearest integer in MySQL?

Here is my code:
 
     SELECT table1.f_id  FROM table1 WHERE table1.f_com_id = &#39;430&#39; AND      
     table1.f_status = &#39;Submitted&#39; 
     INNER JOIN table2
     ON table2.f_id = table1.f_id
     where table2.f_type = &#39;InProcess&#39;

I need information from `table1` as all the id associated with `f_com_id` as 430 and status as submitted and the type should be only in process which is stored in other table(`table2`)

`f_id` is `p_key` and `f_key` in both the tables.  
But this giving me errors, I think I am placing the `WHERE` clause wrong, how to fix it.?

&gt;Error msg: #1064 - You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near &#39;INNER JOIN table2
ON table2.f_id = &#39; at line 2 

MySql Inner Join with WHERE clause

I am experimenting and learning with Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 SP1.
I have a database where I made many experiments. Now I would like to drop and recreate it.
So I extract the creation script from database, I delete it and I use the script to recreate it.
To my surprise, all the tables, keys etc are still there.
How do I drop the database, so that I can rebuild the database from scratch?

Dropping and recreating databases in Microsoft SQL Server

When I try to install tSQLt onto an existing database i get the following error:

&gt; The database owner SID recorded in the master database differs from
&gt; the database owner SID recorded in database &#39;&#39;. You should correct
&gt; this situation by resetting the owner of database &#39;&#39; using the ALTER
&gt; AUTHORIZATION statement.

The database owner SID recorded in the master database differs from the database owner SID

An application that has been working without problem (and has not had any active development done on it in about 6 months or so) recently began failing to connect to database.  Operations admins cant say what might have changed that would cause the problem.

The client application uses a hardcoded connection string with Integrated Security=True, but when the applications attempts to create a connection to the database, it throws an SQLException saying &quot;Login failed for user &#39;NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON&quot;.

I can log on to the database through Management Studio on this account without problem.  All of the things that I have seen for this issue are for ASP.NET projects and it is apparently the &quot;Double Hop Problem&quot; which being a client application darned well better not be a problem.  Any help would be greatly appreciated.

Edit
-
The client machine and server machine as well as user accounts are on the same domain.
This occurs when Windows Firewall is off.

Leading theory is:
Server was restarted about a week or so ago, and failed to register Service Principal Name (SPN).  Failure to register an SPN may cause integrated authentication to fall back to NTLM instead of Kerberos.

SQL Server returns error &quot;Login failed for user &#39;NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON&#39;.&quot; in Windows application

I want to remove foreign key from another table so i can insert values of my choice.

I am new in databases so please tell me correct sql query to drop or remove foreign key value.



Content Type	Original Author	Original Content on Stackoverflow
Question	Satish	View Question on Stackoverflow
Solution 1 - Sql	LittleBobbyTables - Au Revoir	View Answer on Stackoverflow
Solution 2 - Sql	Mikael Eriksson	View Answer on Stackoverflow
Solution 3 - Sql	Hunter	View Answer on Stackoverflow
Solution 4 - Sql	Robert	View Answer on Stackoverflow
Solution 5 - Sql	Roshan	View Answer on Stackoverflow

How SQL query result insert in temp table?

Sql Problem Overview

Sql Solutions

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Preventing session hijacking

Using javascript map with a function that has two arguments

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